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Showing posts with label bank and other examination papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label bank and other examination papers. Show all posts

2010/06/05

ANDHRA BANK PROBATIONARY EXAM - 2006 (ENGLISH LANGUAGE)

2010/06/05
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Live At The Troubadour [CD / DVD Combo] 

Directions (Qs 176 to 185): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Right of entry to education, an ample teaching-learning environment, a suitable curriculum and an empowered and all-encompassing faculty are four essential prerequisites of an education system that seeks to enable social transformation. While educational reform since the 1980s was strongly focused on the first two elements, the late 1990s brought the role of the curriculum into national focus. The critical link that binds these four critical elements together – the activity of the faculty – countries to be cast aside, by political ideologies of most hues, contemporary curriculum reform efforts and the professional practices of the faculty.
Far-reaching educational initiatives of both the Left and the Right have recongised the potential power of the faculty. In multiple experiments, they have used this dormant force to build committed institutions and cadres of faculties dedicated to their particular causes. In may instances this has led to extreme politicization of the college faculty. In others it has led to the education of a generation of students in half-truths underpinned by the personal beliefs, sectarian concerns and folk pedagogy of facilities who have had little access themselves to education and training in related areas.
Over the last decade or so, educational reform has included, apart from access, a focus on developing alternative text materials and the training of faculty to handle these materials, without directly engaging with the issue of curriculum revamp. At the turn of the 20th century, a major national curriculum redesign was initiated following the change of political regime at the centre. The subsequent development of college programme came under wide public scrutiny and debate. Issues of equity, inclusion and exclusion, learner medley religious identity and communalism gained considerable importance in the curriculum debates that followed. For instance, scholars argued that “…the curriculum, while loud on rhetoric, fails to address the quality of education that students of underprivileged and marginalized groups experience.” Several other critics described the revised curriculum as a retrogressive step in education that sought to impose the religious agenda in the garb of a national identity.
The subsequent change of national government in 2004 led to the curriculum review in 2005, underlining a new political interest in the role of education in national development, its role in social mobilization and transformation directed specifically at questions of caste and gender asymmetry and minority empowerment. Deeper than these politically driven initiatives, however, the professional need for curriculum review emerges from the long ossification of a national education system that continues to view faculty as “dispensers of information” and students as “passive recipients” of an “education” sought to be “delivered” in four-walled classrooms with little scope to develop critical thinking and understanding.
1. Which of the following best describes the phrase “passive recipients” as used in the passage?
(a) The users of the educational system
(b) The political ideology of right and left parties
(c) Well-framed curriculum guiding the teaching/learning process
(d) Free access to education system
(e) The faculty
2. To facilitate social transformation, which of the following has been identified by the author as one of the factors?
(a) A committed political ideology
(b) Support of the well-framed curriculum
(c) A strong administration system
(d) Carefully planned education delivery
(e) None of these
3. Prior to 1990 what was NOT on the agenda of the education reforms?
(1) An appropriate curriculum (2) Well-managed admission process
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Either 1 or 2 (e) None of these
4. Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning of the word medley as used in the passage?
(a) amalgamate (b) united (c) unity
(d) diffuse (e) focusing
5. Which of the following best describes the word ossification as used in the passage?
(a) hardening (b) plasticity (c) imbibition
(d) incorporation (e) coalescing
6. Revamping of the text material was the main focus in
(a) early eighties (b) late nineties
(c) 21st century (d) evolving curriculum framework
(e) training faculty
7. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the word underpinned as used in the passage?
(a) advocated (b) supported (c) prepared
(d) bolstered (e) boosted
8. What hampers the critical thinking ability of college-going students?
(a) The emphasis on rote memorization and recalling the facts of education based on real experience
(b) Lack of political will to develop these abilities
(c) Absence of focus while designing curriculum framework
(d) Ignoring the active role of faculty and the student
(e) Lack of proper tests of critical thinking ability
9. How did personal beliefs and folk pedagogy enter into education system?
(a) The college acted as an agent of local communities.
(b) The faculties were not properly trained.
(c) College faculties started acting as passive listeners.
(d) The loopholes in the education system allowed it to happen.
(e) It was by design.
10. Development of textbooks generated public debate on many issues except
(1) making the curriculum student-centred.
(2) using teaching community as an agency to bring change.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Either 1 or 2
(e) None of these
Directions (Qs 186 to 192): Read each sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
11. 1) They have invited/2) Sushma and I/3) for the meeting to be /4) held in the next month. /5) No error
12. 1) The city people stayed/2) fearlessly despite of/3) rumor of terrorist attack/4) in the area./5) No error
13. 1) the Director asked me/2) how I have not/3) taken his permission/4) before applying for the new job./5) No error
14. 1) Buy presents for ladies/2) in their absence/3) is a very/4) difficult task./5) No error
15. 1) A disaster management cell is opened/2) by the state government/3) before the rainy season/4) as a precautionary measure./5). No error.
16. 1) This college has/2) a glorious tradition/3) that attract/4) good students to the college./5) No error.
17. 1) Manasi is too busy/2) in her current/3) programmes to take/4) up any new ones./5) No error.
Directions (Qs 193 to 199): In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet.
18.
(1) census (2) censure
(3) reprimand (4) universe
(a) 1-2 (b) 1-4 (c) 1-3
(d) 2-3 (e) 3-4
19.
(1) reason (2) discernible
(3) valid (4) perceptible
(a) 1-4 (b) 2-3 (c) 1-3
(d) 3-4 (e) 2-4
20.
(1) critical (2) space
(3) concourse (4) courtyard
(a) 1-4 (b) 2-4 (c) 3-4
(d) 2-3 (e) 1-2
21.
(1) mitigation (2) risking
(3) appreciation (4) alleviation
(a) 3-1 (b) 3-4 (c) 1-4
(d) 1-2 (e) 2-4
22.
(1) reiteration (2) honouring
(3) reverberation (4) hollow
(a) 1-3 (b) 2-3 (c) 3-4
(d) 1-2 (e) 2-4
23.
(1) refurbish (2) furnish
(3) innovate (4) renovate
(a) 3-1 (b) 3-4 (c) 3-2
(d) 2-1 (e) 1-4
24.
(1) articulate (2) decipher
(3) senseless (4) decode
(a) 3-2 (b) 1-4 (c) 2-1
(d) 4-3 (e) 4-2
Directions (Qs 200 to 210): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5) i.e. ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
25. Lift the handset only after paid a one rupee coin.
(a) paying a one-rupee coin (b) you pay one rupee coin
(c) pay one rupee-coin (d) you paid one rupee coin
(e) No correction required
26. Good life, according to many people, is to making more and more money.
(a) is making (b) is made
(c) are made (d) are making
(e) No correction required
27. His behaviour with all his employees is so pleasing that everyone come forward for helping him.
(a) came towards him for help (b) comes towards him for help
(c) comes forward to help him (d) comes forward for help him
(e) No correction required
28. A master should never impose his servants too much work.
(a) his servants with too much work (b) too much work with his servants
(c) too much work on his servants (d) too much work for his servants
(e) No correction required
29. What matter does most is the quality and not the quantity.
(a) What does matter (b) What does it matter
(c) That matters (d) What matters
(e) No correction required
30. The police commissioner burst into rage and ordered immediately suspension of the inspector who had arrested the innocent boy.
(a) order immediately (b) order immediate
(c) ordered immediate (d) ordering immediate
(e) No correction required
31. He would be like to have some ice-cream.
(a) would like to (b) would be liked to
(c) was to be liking to (d) would being liked to
(e) No correction required
32. Not knowing the language and had no friends in the country, he found it possible to get a job.
(a) has no (b) with having
(c) with having not (d) having no
(e) No correction required
33. She will not attend the meeting until she is asked to
(a) except (b) even with
(c) even except (d) unless
(e) No correction required
34. Because of his smart work, he is in the best books of his employer.
(a) in the better books (b) in the good book
(c) in the good books (d) into the good books
(e) No correction required
35. With the introduction of the new system, the number of candidates who resort to unfair means is decreasing year after year.
(a) resorting to (b) to resort to
(c) resorted to (d) to resorting
(e) No correction required
Directions (Qs 211 to 225): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are again printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Though I had hired cabins in Bandra and a house in Andheri, divinity would not let me settle down. 211 had I moved into my new house when my brother Balmukund, who had already been through an 212 attack of jaundice some year bank, had a 213 attack a typhoid, 214 with pneumonia and signs of restlessness at night. The doctor was 215 in. He said medicine would have 216 effect, but eggs and chicken both might be given. Balmukund was only five years old. To confer with his wishes was out of the question. Being his 217 I had to 218. The doctor was very good. I told him that we were all vegetarians and that I could not possibly give either of the two things to my brother. Would he therefore 219 something else? ‘Your brother’s life is in danger’ said the 220 doctor. ‘We could give him milk diluted 221 water, but that will not give him enough 222. As you know, I am called in by many vegetarian families, and they do not 223 to anything I 224. I think you will be well advised not to be so 225 on your brother.’
36.
(a) Then (b) Hardly (c) Wherever
(d) Quicker (e) Why
37.
(a) heart (b) big (c) acute
(d) hard (e) harsh
38.
(a) unforgiving (b) hard (c) burly
(d) severe (e) tough
39.
(a) couple (b) felt (c) combined
(d) joint (e) adjoining
40.
(a) brought (b) called (c) invited
(d) sent (e) commissioned
41.
(a) negligent (b) soothed (c) rough
(d) little (e) deep
42.
(a) doctor (b) attendant (c) nurse
(d) forefather (e) guardian
43.
(a) plead (b) hide (c) pressurize
(d) decide (e) proceed
44.
(a) resolve (b) order (c) observe
(d) diagnose (e) recommend
45.
(a) casual (b) good (c) surgeon
(d) handsome (e) insincere
46.
(a) with (b) for (c) at
(d) upon (e) in
47.
(a) dose (b) drug (c) intake
(d) nourishment (e) punishment
48.
(a) oppose (b) protest (c) subject
(d) care (e) object
49.
(a) oppose (b) take (c) prescribe
(d) describe (e) propose
50.
(a) hard (b) unkind (c) easy
(d) wise (e) careful
ANSWERS
1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (a)
6. (c)
7. (b)
8. (c)
9. (b)
10. (c)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (b)
14. (a)
15. (e)
16. (c)
17. (b)
18. (d)
19. (e)
20. (c)
21. (c)
22. (a)
23. (e)
24. (e)
25. (a)
26. (a)
27. (c)
28. (c)
29. (d)
30. (c)
31. (a)
32. (d)
33. (d)
34. (c)
35. (e)
36. (b)
37. (c)
38. (d)
39. (c)
40. (b)
41. (d)
42. (e)
43. (a)
44. (e)
45. (b)
46. (a)
47. (d)
48. (e)
49. (c)
50. (a)

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UGC NET EXAMINATION - 2007 (JUNIOR FELLOW RESEARCH)

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Rage of Angels 

1. Which novel has a nameless narrator?
(a) Moby Dick (b) Anna Karenina
(c) Invisible Man (d) The Grapes of Wrath
2. Samuel Beckett wrote -
(a) Volpone (b) Mother Courage and Her Children
(c) A Doll’s House (d) Endgame
3. Which one of the following author-book pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Elfride Jelinek – The Pianist (b) J.M. Coetzee- Shame
(c) Saul Bellow – Herzog (d) Salman Rushdie – Disgrace
4. The Plough and the ‘Stars’ was written by -
(a) G.B. Shaw (b) Sean O’Casey
(c) Lady Gregory (d) J.M. Synge
5. Willy Loman is a character in-
(a) Waiting for Godot (b) A Doll’s House
(c) The Cherry Orchard (d) The Death of a Salesman
6. John Evellyn and Samuel Pepys were the famous writers of -
(a) Editorials (b) Letters
(c) Essays (d) Diaries
7. The subtitle of Dryden’s Absalom and Achitophel is -
(a) There was no subtitle (b) A Poem
(c) A Satire (d) A satire on the True Blue Protestant Poets
8. Who of the following is not a periodical essayist?
(a) Richard Steele (b) Lancelot Andrews
(c) Joseph Addison (d) Jonathan Swift
9. “Did he who made the Lamb made thee” appears in-
(a) ‘Introduction’ (b) ‘ The Tyger’
(c) ‘Chimney Sweeper’ (d) ‘London’
10. Which of the following thinker- concept pairs is rightly matched?
(a) I.A. Richards – Archetypal criticism
(b) Northrop Frye-Practical criticism
(c) Jacqes Devide – New Historicism
(d) Stanley Fish – Reader Response
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11. “Essays of Eila” are-
(a) Economic disparity (b) Literary criticism
(c) Political ideology (d) Personal impressions
12. Which of the following thinker – concept pairs is rightly matched?
(a) Mamata – Vakrokti (b) Abhinava Gupta- Kavya Alankar
(c) Bharata – Natya Shastra (d) Vaman – Dhwanyaloka
13. Choose the correct sequence of the following schools of criticism -
(a) Deconstruction, New Criticism, Structuralism, Reader Response
(b) Reader Response, Deconstruction, Structuralism, New Criticism
(c) New Criticism, Structuralism, Deconstruction, Reader Response
(d) Structuralism, New Criticism, Deconstruction, Reader Response
14. ‘Peripeteia’ means -
(a) Tragic flaw (b) Recognition of error
(c) Purgation of emotion (d) Reversal of fortune
15. ‘Gynocriticism’ focuses on -
(a) Criticism of male writers by women writers
(b) Criticism on women
(c) Criticism by women
(d) Women as writers
16. Samuel Butler’s Hudibras is modeled upon -
(a) Don Quixote (b) Endymion
(c) Annus Mirabilis (d) Pilgrim’s Progress
17. Who was the last of the Christian Humanists?
(a) John Bunyan (b) Oliver Cromwell
(c) John Milton (d) Richard Crashaw
18. The narrative of Raja Rao’s Kanthapura is based on-
(a) The Ramayana (b) The Mahabharata
(c) Puranas (d) Shastras
19. Which of the following author- book pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Arundhati Roy
- Algebra of Infinite Justice
(b) Shashi Tharoor
- Trotter’s Name
(c) C.L.R. James
- The English Patient
(d) David Madouf
- The Cityof Djins
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20. Who wrote ‘A tiger does not proclaim its tigretude’ ?
(a) Derek Walcott (b) Soyinka
(c) Achebe (d) Ngugi
21. ‘Jindiworobak’ movement relates to -
(a) Caribbean literature (b) Canadian literature
(c) Australian literature (d) New Zealand literature
22. The Montreal group of poets championed the cause of-
(a) Modernist poetry (b) Imagist poetry
(c) Symbolist poetry (d) Nature poetry
23. The figure of the ‘Abyssinian Maid’ appears in-
(a) ‘Kubla Khan’ (b) ‘Frost at Midnight’
(c) ‘Dejection : an Ode’ (d) ‘Christabel’
24. Coleridge’s statement that imagination “dissolves, diffuse, dissipates in order to
recreate” relates to -
(a) secondary imagination (b) esemplastic imagination
(c) fancy (d) primary imagination
25. Who among the following is a writer of historical romances?
(a) Walter Savage (b) Walter Scott
(c) Jane Austen (d) Emily Bronte
26. Which of the following sequences is correct?
(a) Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond, Middlemarch, The Return of the Native
(b) Henry Esmond, Vanity Fair, Middlemarch, The Return of the Native
(c) Middlemarch, The Return of the Native, Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond
(d) The Return of the Native, Middlemarch, Vanity Fair, Henry Esmond
27. Queen Victoria’s reign, after whom the Victorian period is named, spans-
(a) 1833 – 1901
(b) 1837 – 1901
(c) 1840 – 1905
(d) 1843 – 1905
28. Pre- Raphaelite poetry is mainly concerned with -
(a) narrative and style
(b) narrative and nature
(c) form and design
(d) form and value
29. The concept of “mad woman in the attic” can be traced to-
(a) The Tenant of Wildfell- Hall (b) Villette
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(c) Wuthering Heights (d) Jane Eyre
30. Who among the Victorians is called “the prophet of modern society” ?
(a) Ruskin (b) Carlyle
(c) Macaulay (d) Arnold
31. Who among the following is not a pilgrim in The Canterbury Tales?
(a) The Haberdasher (b) The Tapyser
(c) The Blacksmith (d) The Summoner
32. Bosola is the executioner in -
(a) The Spanish Tragedy (b) The Duchess of Malfi
(c) The White Devil (d) The Jew of Malta
33. The mystery plays deal with -
(a) The life of Christ (b) The New Testament
(c) Psalms (d) Apocrypha
34. The Faerie Queene is based on -
(a) Utopia (b) Tottel’s Miscellany
(c) Morte d’ Arthur (d) Orlando Furioso
35. Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following plays-
(a) King Lear, Othello, Macbeth, Hamlet
(b) Othello, Macbeth, King Lear, Hamlet
(c) Hamlet, Othello, King Lear, Macbeth
(d) Hamlet, King Lear, Othello, Macbeth
36. Pope’s ‘Essay on Criticism’ sums up the art of poetry as taught first by-
(a) Aristotle (b) Horace
(c) Longinus (d) Plato
37. Swift’s Tale of a Tub is a satire on -
(a) Science and philosophy (b) Art and morality
(c) Dogma and superstition (d) Fake morals and manners
38. Dr. Johnson started -
(a) The Postman (b) The Spectator
(c) The Rambler (d) The Tatler
39. Who among the following cautioned against the dangers of popular liberty?
(a) Mary Wollstonecraft (b) Edmund Burke
(c) Thomas Hobbes (d) John Locke
40. Which famous American classic opens with “Call me Ishmael”?
(a) Rip Van Winkle (b) The Scarlet Letter
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(c) The Grapes of Wrath (d) Moby Dick
41. Allen Ginsberg’s Vision of America is inspired by -
(a) Walt Whitman (b) Robert Frost
(c) Ralph Waldo Emerson (d) Edgar A. Poe
42. Who among the following represents the Sri Lankan diaspora ?
(a) M.G. Vassanji (b) Cyril Debydeen
(c) Michael Ondaatje (d) Arnold H. Itwaru
43. Out of Africa is a film adaptation of a work by -
(a) Alice Walker (b) Margaret Lawrence
(c) Margaret Atwood (d) Alice Munro
44. The Empire Writes Back was written by -
(a) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Ngugi Wa Thinngo
(b) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Stephen Slemon
(c) Bill Ashcroft, Gareth Griffiths, Chinua Achebe
(d) Bill Ashcroft, Helen Tiffin, Gareth Griffiths
45. The Theatre of Cruelty is associated with -
(a) Stanislavosky (b) Grotovsky
(c) Antonin Artand (d) Eugino Barba
46. A particle is -
(a) A patchwork of words, sentences, passages
(b) A satirical poem
(c) A love song
(d) A collection of lines from different poems
47. “Careless she is with artful Care/ Affecting to seem unaffected” is an example of -
(a) Irony (b) Paradox
(c) Simile (d) Metaphor
48. A metrical foot containing a stressed, followed by an unstressed, syllable is -
(a) Anapaest (b) Iamb
(c) Trochee (d) Dacty 1
49. The rhyme scheme of a Spenserian sonnet is -
(a) abba, cbcb, cdcd, ee
(b) abab, bccb, ccdd, ee
(c) aabb, bcbc, ccdd, ee
(d) abab, bcbc, cdcd, ee
50. Using the expression ‘Crown’ for the monarchy is an example of -
(a) Metonymy (b) Synecdoche
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(c) Irony (d) Metaphor
Answer Keys
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (d)
6. (d)
7. (b)
8. (d)
9. (c)
10. (d)
11. (d)
12. (c)
13. (b)
14. (d)
15. (d)
16. (a)
17. (a)
18. (c)
19. (a)
20. (c)
21. (a)
22. (a)
23. (a)
24. (d)
25. (b)
26. (a)
27. (b)
28. (c)
29. (c)
30. (d)
31. (b)
32. (b)
33. (b)
34. (c)
35. (c)
36. (c)
37. (c)
38. (c)
39. (b)
40. (a)
41. (a)
42. (c)
43. (b)
44. (c)
45. (b)
46. (a)
47. (b)
48. (c)
49. (d)
50. (a)

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ANDHRA BANK PROBATIONARY EXAM - 2006

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Breach of Trust 

1. Govt. of India recently decided to import wheat at a lower rate of custom duty. The effective rate of the duty would be
(a) 15% (b) 12% (c) 10%
(d) 5% (e) None of these
2. As per the reports published recently in the newspapers, banks surpassed the target set for farm credit in 2005-06. How much more credit was given to this sector in terms of percentage?
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 26%
(d) 33% (e) 43%
3. The Government of India recently extended the deadline for telecom companies to comply with the new FDI norms by another three months. Which is the new deadline?
2nd October, 2006 (b) 30th October, 2006 (c) 15th November, 2006
(d) 30th November, 2006 (e) None of these
4. As per the reports published in the newspapers, the National Housing Bank (NHB) is planning to launch a Reverse Mortgage scheme specially to help which of the following sections of society?
(a) People in rural India
(b) Senior citizens
(c) People living in Govt accommodations
(d) Women who are sole breadwinners
(e) None of these
5. Which of the following companies has got two contracts to establish two power projects in Afghanistan?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL)
(b) National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC)
(c) National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
(d) Reliance Energy Ltd
(e) None of these
6. The final match of the Uber Cup badminton 2006 was played between China and
(a) Japan (b) Denmark (c) Italy
(d) The Netherlands (e) None of these
7. Which of the following organizations/agencies recently prepared a charter of the Banking Codes and Services? (All banks are required to sign the same)
(a) Indian Bank Association (IBA)
(b) Indian Institute of Banking & Finance (IIBF)
(c) All India Bank Employees' Union
(d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(e) None of these
8. A four-day Ministerial level meeting of G-20 and G-33 countries was held in June 2006 in
(a) Hong Kong (b) Beijing (c) New Delhi
(d) Jakarta (e) Geneva
9. Why was the name of SY Quereshi recently in news?
(a) He is the new Election Commissioner of India.
(b) He is the new Foreign Secretary, Govt. of India.
(c) He will be our new Permanent Representative in the UNO.
(d) He is India’s new Permanent Representative in the World Trade Organisation
(e) None of these
10. Govt. of India recently introduced sortie measures/incentives to improve tourism in India. Which of the following is one of these measures?
(a) Issuance of electronic visa
(b) Free stay for three days and Govt. hotels in four metros for business travelers and frequent flyers
(c) Highly subsidized air travel on metro routes for frequent flyers
(d) Free trip to Agra, Delhi and Jaipur to those coming on education/study tours
(e) None of these
11. Women in which of the following OPEC countries participated in elections for the first time? (Elections were held recently)
(a) UAE (b) Kuwait (c) Iran
(d) Saudi Arabia (e) None of these
12. Which of the following agencies recently laid down guidelines for foreign companies who wish to raise money from the Indian capital markets?
(a) RBI (b) IRDA (c) Registrar of Companies
(d) SEBI (e) None of these
13. The Government of India recently advised which of the following to have uniform accounting standards and also to amortize premium on their investment without fail?
(a) Provident Fund Companies (b) Mutual Fund Operators
(c) Co-operative Banks (d) Insurance Companies
(e) None of these
14. SEBI recently decided to give an exemption to some companies from the requirement of the minimum 25 per cent public shareholding. Companies exempted from such requirement should fulfil which of the following norms?
(1) They should have market capitalization of Rs. 1,000 crore.
(2) They should have 20 million shares listed.
(3) They should have a turnover of Rs. 400 crore per annum.
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) (c) Only (3)
(d) (1) & (3) both (e) (1) & (2) both
15. Which of the following organizations/agencies has agreed to setup an ‘Institute in India to Train Manpower in commodities?
(a) World Bank (b) Asian Development Bank
(c) International Monetary Fund (d) New York Stock Exchange
(e) None of these
16. More and More banks in India these days are setting up their ATMS and discourage people to visit their branches for transaction. Which of the following is/are the limitation(s) of the ATMs which force people to got to branch for transactions?
(1) Lack of human interface (2) Communication gap
(3) Limited cash dispensing ability
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) (c) Only (3)
(d) (1) & (2) both (e) (1), (2) & (3) all
17. How much amount can the Postal Department invest in revenue-generating instruments and/or stock market to reduce its budgetary deficit? (amount is from its insurance schemes)
(a) Rs. 1,400 crore (b) Rs. 2,500 crore (c) Rs. 4,500 crore
(d) Rs. 7,400 crore (e) Rs. 10,000 crore
18. The Non-Profit Companies which were unlisted but have accessed Foreign Currency were asked to get themselves listed within three months or latest by March 31, 2006. This rule is now relaxed and such companies can get listed in a period of
(a) 1 years (b) 2 years (c) 3 years
(d) 5 years (e) 10 years
19. Which of the following countries won World team table tennis championship 2006 for men and women both?
(a) Japan (b) China (c) Hong Kong
(d) Germany (e) USA
20. The Government of India recently cleared Rs. 1,00,000 crore of investment in Special Economic Zones (SEZs). The investment will be helpful in many way. Which of the following is/are among such benefits?
(1) About 40,000 hectares of the land will be converted into SEZs.
(2) About 5,00,000 people will get various types of jobs in those units.
(3) Export of agro products would get an enormous boost as all such SEZ units are to be established for agro exports only.
(a) 1 and 2 both (b) Only 1 (c) Only 2
(d) Only 3 (e) 1, 2 and 3 all
21. Which of the following is NOT one of the core areas identified under the Bharat Nirman Programme?
(a) Irrigation (b) Rural electrification (c) Drinking water supply
(d) Rural Housing (e) Computer education in Schools
22. The World Sports Award ceremony was held recently in
(a) Spain (b) Italy (c) France
(d) Germany (e) Canada
23. All day-to-day functions of the Panchayat in which of the following states are being operated on electronic system and are web-based? (This is being done for the first time in India for a panchayat)
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra (e) None of these
24. Marion Jones is a well-known
(a) Badminton player (b) Tennis player (c) Golfer
(d) Athlete (e) None of these
25. Who amongst the following is the author of the book The City of Joy?
(a) Dominique Lapierre (b) Guenter Grass (c) Daniel Steele
(d) Graham Greene (e) None of these
26. Why was Vijay Nambiar’s name recently in the news?
(a) He has taken over as the new Cabinet Secretary, Govt of India.
(b) He will be our permanent representative in the UNO.
(c) He has taken over as the Undersecretary-General in the UNO.
(d) He is new Foreign Secretary, Govt. of India.
(e) None of these.
27. Which of the following cups/trophics is associated with the game of volleyball?
(a) Indian Cup (b) Ramanujam Trophy (c) Lincoln Trophy
(d) Dhyanchand Trophy (e) Him Gold Cup
28. The Basel II Accord for Banking Industry is based on three pillars. Which of the following is/are NOT included in the same?
(1) Minimum Capital Requirement (2) Supervisory Review
(3) Market Discipline (4) Credit Risk
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 3 (c) Only 4
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3 (e) None of these
29. Alan Garcia, whose name was recently in the news, is the
(a) Prime Minister of Peru (b) President of Peru
(c) Prime Minister of Italy (d) President of Italy
(e) None of these
30. In which of the following states one village in each block is being developed as a model village?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu (e) None of these
31. ‘Sheqel’ is the currency of
(a) Israel (b) Kenya (c) Iraq
(d) Iran (e) None of these
32. Which of the following is True about Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)?
(1) Youth of the age of 18-45 years are eligible for taking loan under the scheme.
(2) Loans are possible only for non-agricultural activities in rural/semi-urban areas.
(3) In the 10th plan about 16.5 lakh persons are likely to get employment under this scheme.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 3
(d) Only 3 (e) All 1, 2, and 3
33. Which of the following terms is NOT related with the game of hockey?
(a) Soda line (b) Tie-breaker (c) Hat-trick
(d) Half-Volley (e) Follow-on
34. Indian exports recorded an increase in May 2006. What was the increase in terms of percentage?
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25%
(d) 30% (e) 35%
35. Which of the following countries has the largest stock of foreign exchange reserves in the world?
(a) USA (b) China (c) Japan
(d) India (e) None of these
36. The 9th National e-Governance Conference was recently organized in
(a) New Delhi (b) Jaipur (c) Mumbai
(d) Bangalore (e) Kochi
37. FIFA World Cup 2010 will be organized in
(a) Italy (b) Brazil (c) South Africa
(d) Britain (e) None of these
38. As per the reports published in the newspapers, which of the following countries is first in the production of gold jewellery?
(a) China (b) India (c) Turkey
(d) Italy (e) None of these
39. Mr Ramjrishna Suryabhanji Gavai has recently taken over as the Governor of
(a) West Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Punjab
(d) Bihar (e) None of these
40. Who amongst the following was adjudged best actress in the 7th IIFA Award ceremony held in Dubai?
(a) Lara Dutta (b) Priyanka Chopra (c) Kajol
(d) Rani Mukherjee (e) None of these
41. Who amongst the following is the first Chairman of the newly constituted National Statistical Commission?
(a) Prof. Suresh D Tendhulkar (b) Dr. Ashok Lahiri
(c) Dr. Rakesh Mohan (d) Prof. SK Ghosh
(e) None of these
42. Mr Percy Sonn, who is the newly appointed President of the International Cricket Council (ICC), if from which of the following countries?
(a) South Africa (b) Britain (c) New Zealand
(d) Australia (e) None of these
43. Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan states are planning to link which of the following two rivers?
(a) Chambal-Betwa (b) Narmada-Chambal (c) Narmada-Kali Sindh
(d) Chambal-Kali Sindh (e) None of these
44. Which of the following countries recently test-fired a series of missiles?
(a) Russia (b) South Korea (c) North Korea
(d) France (e) None of these
45. Who amongst the following is the author of the book Bearder-My Life in Cricket?
(a) Shane Warne (b) Bill Frindall (c) Brain Lara
(d) Imran Khan (e) None of these
46. India along with which of the following countries is planning to launch Chandrayaan I?
(a) Russia (b) France (c) USA
(d) China (e) None of these
47. The Fifth D-8 Summit of Developing Nations was organized recently in
(a) Indonesia (b) India (c) Brazil
(d) Malaysia (e) None of these
48. India recently signed an MoU on Military Ties with which of the following countries?
(a) UK (b) USA (c) China
(d) Italy (e) Russia
49. Which of the following countries is NOT one of the four former Soviet States who have jointly formed a forum “Organisation for Democracy and Economic Development GUAM”?
(a) Georgia (b) Ukraine (c) Croatia
(d) Azerbaijan (e) Moldova
50. Which of the following countries has awarded congressional Gold Medal to Dalai Lama, Tenzin Gyatso?
(a) Britain (b) France (c) Italy
(d) USA (e) None of these
ANSWERS
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (a)
6. (d)
7. (a)
8. (b)
9. (a)
10. (a)
11. (b)
12. (d)
13. (c)
14. (e)
15. (d)
16. (e)
17. (e)
18. (c)
19. (b)
20. (c)
21. (e)
22. (a)
23. (a)
24. (d)
25. (a)
26. (b)
27. (c)
28. (c)
29. (b)
30. (a)
31. (a)
32. (b)
33. (e)
34. (d)
35. (b)
36. (e)
37. (c)
38. (b)
39. (d)
40. (d)
41. (a)
42. (a)
43. (d)
44. (c)
45. (b)
46. (c)
47. (a)
48. (b)
49. (c)
50. (d)

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